Aristotle disagreed with Socrates that no man can knowingly do what he thinks to be evil.

Aristotle disagreed with Socrates that no man can knowingly do what he thinks to be evil. Does this point to a fundamental epistemological disagreement between the two philosophers? Aristotle crafted changes to philosophy that greatly influenced its distinctly Western trajectory. Why did this happen at this point in philosophical history? Why not earlier? Was Aristotle the first philosopher to reason using reason alone without being tied to the religion of his day?

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